Imagine there is a citizen of an EU country living in a country called Spain or Italy.
The citizen runs online business. He has relative control as of to where the funds he earns are directed.
Let's imagine that this citizen opens a company in a country in the Balkans, and is the sole shareholder of the same.
He then directs 80% of his income to this company, and 20% of his income he receives directly as a self-employed in his country of residence.
He never cashes out from this company, neither in dividends nor in salaries.
After he accumulates a certain amount of capital in this company and invests in stocks and real estate only as a company some 5-7 years pass.
He then moves out of Spain/Italy to this country in the Balkans, dissolves the company and finally cashes out for himself. He then pays whatever income tax is needed in the Balkan country.
He doesn't go back to Italy/Spain ever, or at least not for 5-10 years.
Could this work? Am I missing something?
The citizen runs online business. He has relative control as of to where the funds he earns are directed.
Let's imagine that this citizen opens a company in a country in the Balkans, and is the sole shareholder of the same.
He then directs 80% of his income to this company, and 20% of his income he receives directly as a self-employed in his country of residence.
He never cashes out from this company, neither in dividends nor in salaries.
After he accumulates a certain amount of capital in this company and invests in stocks and real estate only as a company some 5-7 years pass.
He then moves out of Spain/Italy to this country in the Balkans, dissolves the company and finally cashes out for himself. He then pays whatever income tax is needed in the Balkan country.
He doesn't go back to Italy/Spain ever, or at least not for 5-10 years.
Could this work? Am I missing something?